Identify the correct mirror image of the given figure along the axis.
1
Option 1
2
Option 2
3
Option 3
4
Option 4
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept: The mirror is placed along the axis, which represents a vertical mirror. In a vertical mirror image: The figure is reversed left to right, Top and bottom positions remain unchanged. All internal elements (arrows, dots, diagonals, and shaded parts) must also reverse their horizontal orientation. Step-by-step analysis: The slanting lines on the right side of the original figure appear on the left in the mirror image. The small triangle in the bottom-right corner shifts to the bottom-left. The arrow inside the central square reverses its horizontal direction. The positions of the dots remain vertically aligned but shift horizontally. Comparison with options: Option (A): Does not correctly reverse all diagonal elements. Option (B): Shows an exact left–right reversal of every component. Option (C): Central arrow orientation is incorrect. Option (D): Overall structure does not match the mirrored layout. Hence, the correct mirror image along the axis is Option (B). Final Answer:
02
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Identify the most used building material seen in the façade of the building shown in the picture.
1
Sand Stone
2
Granite
3
Marble
4
Slate
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
The façade of a building refers to its exterior front surface. Identifying the building material depends on visual characteristics such as color, texture, and historical construction practices. Explanation: The building shown has a smooth, white, polished appearance. Such a finish is characteristic of marble, which has been extensively used in Mughal architecture. Sandstone is usually reddish or brown. Granite is darker and coarser in texture. Slate is commonly used for roofing rather than façades. Thus, the most used building material visible on the façade is marble. Final Answer:
03
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Identify the name of the monument shown in the picture.
1
Tower of Victory
2
Connaught Place
3
The Pantheon
4
The Parthenon
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Concept:
Monuments can be identified by their architectural style, structural features, and historical origin. Explanation: The structure shown has a rectangular form with tall Doric columns surrounding it. It is an ancient Greek temple situated on the Acropolis of Athens. The Pantheon has a large dome, which is absent here. Connaught Place is a commercial area in New Delhi, not a classical monument. Tower of Victory is a tall tower, not a colonnaded temple. Hence, the monument shown in the image is The Parthenon. Final Answer:
04
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Which book by Robert Venturi is considered a pivotal text in the development of postmodern architecture?
1
\textit{The Timeless Way of Building}
2
\textit{The Poetics of Space}
3
\textit{Complexity and Contradiction in Architecture}
4
\textit{Architecture: Form, Space and Order}
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
Postmodern architecture emerged as a reaction against the simplicity and rigidity of modernism. Texts that questioned functional purity and embraced historical reference, ambiguity, and symbolism became foundational to this movement. Explanation: Robert Venturi's book \textit{Complexity and Contradiction in Architecture} (1966) challenged the modernist principle of “less is more” by proposing “less is a bore.” The book argued for richness, ambiguity, and historical reference in architectural design. \textit{The Timeless Way of Building} is by Christopher Alexander. \textit{The Poetics of Space} is written by Gaston Bachelard. \textit{Architecture: Form, Space and Order} is authored by Francis D.K. Ching. Thus, the book that played a pivotal role in shaping postmodern architectural thought is \textit{Complexity and Contradiction in Architecture}.
05
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Which material is used traditionally to make sandpaper?
1
Brick
2
Silica
3
Iron
4
Rubber
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
Sandpaper is an abrasive material used for smoothing and finishing surfaces. The effectiveness of sandpaper depends on the hardness and sharpness of the abrasive grains bonded to the paper backing. Explanation: Silica (silicon dioxide) is a naturally occurring hard mineral commonly found in sand. Traditionally, sandpaper was made by fixing fine grains of silica sand onto paper using adhesive. Brick is too coarse and irregular for controlled abrasion. Iron is a metal and not used as an abrasive grain in sandpaper. Rubber is soft and flexible, unsuitable for abrasion. Hence, the material traditionally used to make sandpaper is silica. Final Answer:
06
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Pointed arches and flying buttresses were the prominent architectural features introduced in which architectural style?
1
Romanesque
2
Renaissance
3
Gothic
4
Baroque
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
Architectural styles are identified by their structural innovations and visual characteristics. Certain construction elements are uniquely associated with specific historical periods. Explanation: Gothic architecture introduced: Pointed arches to distribute weight more efficiently, Flying buttresses to support tall walls and allow large stained-glass windows. Romanesque architecture used round arches and thick walls. Renaissance architecture emphasized symmetry, proportion, and classical elements. Baroque architecture is known for dramatic ornamentation and grandeur, not structural innovations like flying buttresses. Thus, pointed arches and flying buttresses are hallmark features of Gothic architecture. Final Answer:
07
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
“Acoustical Design” deals with:
1
Structure of building
2
Sound in the building
3
Ventilation of the building
4
Facade design
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
Acoustical design focuses on the control and quality of sound within a built environment to ensure comfort, clarity, and functionality. Explanation: Acoustical design involves: Sound propagation, Noise control, Echo and reverberation management, Speech intelligibility and sound clarity. It is especially important in auditoriums, classrooms, theatres, and concert halls. Structure of building relates to strength and stability. Ventilation deals with air circulation. Facade design concerns the external appearance of a building. Hence, acoustical design deals with sound in the building. Final Answer:
08
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
What is the primary purpose of using a `mullion' in window design?
1
For decoration
2
To enhance ventilation
3
To support the glass within the window frame
4
To block sunlight
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
A mullion is a vertical structural element that divides adjacent window units and provides support to the glazing system. Explanation: The primary function of a mullion is structural support, especially in large window openings. It helps transfer the load of the glass and frame safely to the building structure. Mullions also allow windows to be divided into smaller panes, improving strength and stability. Decoration may be a secondary visual effect, but it is not the main purpose. Ventilation and sunlight control are handled by operable sashes, louvers, or shading devices—not mullions. Therefore, the main purpose of a mullion is to support the glass within the window frame. Final Answer:
09
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
The usable area of a floor is called:
1
Carpet area
2
Plinth area
3
Surface area
4
Built-up area
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Concept:
Different types of floor areas are defined in building planning to distinguish between usable space and structural or circulation spaces. Explanation: Carpet area is the net usable area within a building, measured from wall to wall. It excludes wall thickness, balconies, corridors, staircases, and other common areas. Plinth area includes carpet area plus wall thickness and other covered spaces. Built-up area further includes balconies and external walls. Surface area is a general term and not specifically used to denote usable floor space. Hence, the usable area of a floor is called carpet area. Final Answer:
10
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Name the place where the \textbf{Statue of Unity is situated.}
1
Gandhinagar, Gujarat
2
Kadi, Gujarat
3
Anand, Gujarat
4
Kevadia, Gujarat
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Concept:
The Statue of Unity is a famous national monument, and questions related to its location are based on general knowledge of Indian landmarks. Explanation: The Statue of Unity is located near the Sardar Sarovar Dam on the Narmada River. It is situated at Kevadia (also known as Ekta Nagar) in the state of Gujarat. Gandhinagar is the capital of Gujarat but not the site of the statue. Kadi and Anand are towns in Gujarat, unrelated to the monument. Hence, the Statue of Unity is situated in Kevadia, Gujarat. Final Answer:
11
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
What is the proportional relationship in classical architecture, represented as ?
1
Fibonacci sequence
2
Symmetry ratio
3
Golden ratio
4
Modular scale
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
Classical architecture often relied on mathematical proportions to achieve visual harmony and balance. One such proportion has been historically regarded as aesthetically ideal. Explanation: The number (approximately) represents the Golden Ratio, denoted by the Greek letter . It is defined as the ratio where: The Golden Ratio was widely used in classical Greek architecture, sculpture, and later in Renaissance design to create pleasing proportions. The Fibonacci sequence approaches the golden ratio but is not itself the ratio. Symmetry ratio and modular scale are general design concepts, not specifically equal to . Thus, the proportional relationship represented by is known as the Golden Ratio. Final Answer:
12
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Rings of the wooden log represent:
1
Strength of wood
2
Age of the wood
3
Colour of wood
4
Defects of wood
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
Trees grow by forming one growth ring each year. These rings are clearly visible in a cross-section of a wooden log. Explanation: Each ring represents one year of growth of the tree. By counting the number of rings in a wooden log, the age of the tree (and hence the wood) can be determined. The rings do not directly indicate strength, colour, or defects of the wood. Hence, the rings of a wooden log represent the age of the wood. Final Answer:
13
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
A person starts moving from a point ‘A’ towards south direction for 200 mts, then he returns back to point ‘A’ by taking 180° turn. Identify the primary design element he made after completing his journey.
1
A point
2
A vertical line
3
A horizontal line
4
A diagonal line
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Step 1: Understanding the movement. The person starts from point A and moves straight towards the south direction for 200 meters. This movement creates a straight line in the north–south direction.
Step 2: Effect of the 180° turn. After reaching the end point, the person takes a 180° turn and returns to point A along the same path. A 180° turn means moving in the exact opposite direction, i.e., north, along the same straight line.
Step 3: Identifying the design element. The complete journey traces a straight line along the north–south axis. In design terminology, a line running from north to south is identified as a vertical line.
Step 4: Eliminating other options. (A) A point: Incorrect, because movement creates a line, not just a single point. (C) A horizontal line: Incorrect, as horizontal lines run east–west, not north–south. (D) A diagonal line: Incorrect, because there is no angular movement involved.
Step 5: Conclusion. The primary design element formed after completing the journey is a vertical line.
14
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
When was the Planning Commission of India launched?
1
1948
2
2015
3
1994
4
1952
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Step 1: Understanding the Planning Commission. The Planning Commission of India was responsible for formulating Five-Year Plans and guiding India’s economic and social development in the post-independence period.
Step 2: Historical background. Although the Planning Commission was constituted in 1950, it became fully functional with the launch and implementation phase of planned economic development through the First Five-Year Plan, which came into operation in the early 1950s.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) 1948: Incorrect, as the Planning Commission did not exist at that time. (B) 2015: Incorrect, as this year marks the replacement of the Planning Commission by NITI Aayog. (C) 1994: Incorrect, as the Planning Commission was active much earlier. (D) 1952: Correct — this period is associated with the operational launch of planned development through Five-Year Plans.
Step 4: Conclusion. The correct answer is (D) 1952.
15
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match List–I with List–II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
2
A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
3
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
4
A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Step 1: Population → Density. Population is commonly measured and studied in terms of density, which shows the number of people living per unit area. Hence, A is correctly matched with IV.
Step 2: Communication → Immobility. Better communication reduces the need for physical movement, leading to relative immobility of people and activities. Therefore, B matches with III.
Step 3: Agriculture → Productivity. Agriculture is directly related to productivity, as it depends on crop yield and output per unit of land. Thus, C is matched with I.
Step 4: Industrial → Demand. Industrial development is closely linked with demand for goods and services in the economy. Hence, D corresponds to II.
Step 5: Conclusion. The correct matching is A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II, which corresponds to option (B).
16
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match the LIST–I with LIST–II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
2
A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
3
A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
4
A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Step 1: Mawlynnong → Cleanest village in Asia. Mawlynnong, located in Meghalaya, is famously known as the cleanest village in Asia due to its community-driven cleanliness practices. Hence, A is correctly matched with III.
Step 2: Vishakhapatnam → Port city. Vishakhapatnam is a major port city on the eastern coast of India and serves as an important maritime and industrial center. Therefore, B matches with I.
Step 3: Ladakh → Frozen desert. Ladakh is characterized by extremely cold climatic conditions and low precipitation, which is why it is known as a cold or frozen desert. Thus, C corresponds to IV.
Step 4: Jamshedpur → Steel city. Jamshedpur is widely known as the Steel City of India because it is home to Tata Steel and a major center of iron and steel production. Hence, D is matched with II.
Step 5: Conclusion. The correct matching is A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II, which corresponds to option (A).
17
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match the LIST–I with LIST–II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
2
A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
3
A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
4
A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Step 1: Smart City → IoT. The Smart City Mission focuses on using technology such as Internet of Things (IoT) to improve urban infrastructure, governance, and quality of life. Hence, A is correctly matched with III.
Step 2: P.M. Jan Dhan Yojana → Bank account opening. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana aims to promote financial inclusion by ensuring access to banking services, especially bank account opening for all citizens. Therefore, B matches with IV.
Step 3: PMAY → Affordable housing. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a flagship housing scheme aimed at providing affordable housing to all by the year 2022. Thus, C is correctly matched with I.
Step 4: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan → Primary education. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a major initiative to universalize elementary education and improve access to primary schooling across India. Hence, D corresponds to II.
Step 5: Conclusion. The correct matching is A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II, which corresponds to option (A).
18
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
The figure shows an area of with different land uses. Which land use covers the second largest area?
1
C
2
A
3
B
4
D
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Step 1: Understanding the figure. The given diagram represents a total area of divided into different land-use categories represented by symbols A, B, C, and D. Each symbol corresponds to a specific pattern shown in the legend.
Step 2: Estimating areas visually. By carefully observing the figure, the unshaded region (B) occupies the maximum number of grid squares and hence represents the largest land-use area.
Step 3: Identifying the second largest land-use. Among the remaining patterns, land-use D (dense diagonal shading) covers more grid blocks than A and C. Its spatial spread across multiple blocks makes it the second largest area after B.
Step 4: Eliminating other options. (A) C: Covers fewer grid squares than D. (B) A: Occupies smaller scattered regions. (C) B: This is the largest area, not the second largest.
Step 5: Conclusion. Therefore, the land use that covers the second largest area is D.
19
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
What is the full form of UNICEF?
1
United Nations Iconic Childcare Economic Federation
2
United Nations International Children's Fellowship
3
United Nations International Children's Education Fund
4
United Nations Children's Fund
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Step 1: Understanding UNICEF. UNICEF is a United Nations agency working globally for the welfare, protection, and development of children, especially in developing countries. It focuses on health, nutrition, education, sanitation, and child rights.
Step 2: Analyzing the options. (A) Incorrect, as this is not an official United Nations organization. (B) Incorrect, because UNICEF is not a fellowship program. (C) Incorrect, as the word “Education” alone does not represent UNICEF’s official name. (D) Correct — UNICEF is officially known as the United Nations Children's Fund.
Step 3: Conclusion. The correct expansion of UNICEF is United Nations Children's Fund.
20
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Identify the city ruled by ‘Begums-the Queens.’
1
Hyderabad
2
Murshidabad
3
Bhopal
4
Aligarh
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Step 1: Understanding the phrase “Begums-the Queens.” The term “Begums-the Queens” refers to the unique period in Indian history when a princely state was ruled by a succession of female Muslim rulers known as Begums.
Step 2: Historical background. The princely state of Bhopal was ruled by four Begums between 1819 and 1926. These rulers were Shah Jahan Begum, Sikandar Begum, Qudsia Begum, and Sultan Jahan Begum, who were known for their administrative efficiency and progressive reforms.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) Hyderabad: Ruled by Nizams, not Begums. (B) Murshidabad: Associated with Nawabs of Bengal. (C) Bhopal: Correct — it was uniquely ruled by Begums for over a century. (D) Aligarh: Known for educational reforms, not female rulers.
Step 4: Conclusion. The city ruled by “Begums-the Queens” was Bhopal.
21
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Which ancient civilization is credited with inventing the arch, a fundamental structural element in architecture?
1
Greek
2
Roman
3
Egyptian
4
Mesopotamian
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
The arch is a crucial structural innovation that allows loads to be distributed efficiently, enabling the construction of larger and more durable structures. Explanation: Although earlier civilizations experimented with primitive arches, the Romans are credited with developing and widely using the true arch as a major architectural element. Roman mastery of the arch led to monumental structures such as aqueducts, bridges, amphitheatres, and basilicas. Greek architecture relied mainly on post-and-lintel construction. Egyptian architecture also used trabeated systems with massive stone blocks. Mesopotamian civilizations used basic arches, but did not develop them to the structural and architectural sophistication achieved by the Romans. Hence, the ancient civilization credited with inventing and perfecting the arch in architecture is the Roman civilization. Final Answer:
22
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
In which type of garden style is the concept of the four-part garden given importance?
1
Chinese Garden
2
Mughal Garden
3
Japanese Garden
4
French Garden
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
The four-part garden concept is known as the Charbagh layout. It is a traditional garden design based on geometric division and symbolism. Explanation: The Mughal Garden is based on the Charbagh concept, where the garden is divided into four equal quadrants. These divisions are usually separated by water channels or pathways. The design symbolizes the four rivers of paradise described in Islamic tradition. Chinese and Japanese gardens emphasize natural, asymmetrical layouts. French gardens focus on axial symmetry and grand vistas, not four-part division. Hence, the garden style that gives importance to the four-part garden concept is the Mughal Garden. Final Answer:
23
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
The ground floor plan of a building has entrances. If each entrance can be connected by stairs or an elevator externally, in how many ways can a person enter the building through the entrance?
1
2
3
4
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
This problem is based on the multiplication principle of counting. If an event can occur in ways and another independent event can occur in ways, then the total number of ways both events can occur together is . Step 1: Identify choices at each entrance Number of entrances For each entrance, a person can use: Stairs, or Elevator So, number of choices per entrance . Step 2: Apply multiplication principleConclusion:
A person can enter the building in different ways. Final Answer:
24
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The concept of “form follows function” suggests that a building's design should primarily consider its use. Statement II: The concept of “form follows function” means that aesthetics should take precedence over functionality. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
The principle “form follows function” was introduced by architect Louis Sullivan and became a foundational idea in modern architecture. Explanation: Statement I is true because the concept emphasizes that the shape and form of a building should be determined by its intended function or use. Statement II is false because the principle does \emph{not} suggest that aesthetics should dominate functionality. Instead, aesthetics are expected to emerge naturally from functional design. Thus, only Statement I is correct. Final Answer:
25
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The sun has a maximum altitude of on the Tropic of Capricorn on 22nd June at 12 noon and gradually decreases thereafter till 22nd December. Statement II: The tilt of the Earth on its axis of has no role to play in the change of altitude of the sun on the Tropic of Capricorn. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
The apparent position of the Sun and its altitude at different latitudes depend on the tilt of the Earth’s axis and the revolution of the Earth around the Sun. Explanation: Statement I is false because the Sun is overhead ( ) at the Tropic of Capricorn on 22nd December, not on 22nd June. On 22nd June, the Sun is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. Statement II is also false because the Earth’s axial tilt of is the main reason for the change in the Sun’s altitude at different places and times of the year. Since both statements are incorrect, the correct option is (B). Final Answer:
26
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: is the hardest stone. Statement II: is a soft stone. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept: Building stones are classified based on their geological origin, hardness, and engineering properties. In construction materials, stones are broadly categorized into hard stones and soft stones. Detailed Explanation: Statement I: “Granite is the hardest stone.” Granite is an igneous rock and is known for its high compressive strength, durability, and resistance to weathering. However, granite is not the hardest stone. Stones such as quartzite and minerals like diamond are harder than granite. Therefore, while granite is a very hard stone, calling it the hardest stone is incorrect. Hence, Statement I is false. Statement II: “Marble is a soft stone.” Marble is a metamorphic rock formed from limestone. In building material classification, marble is considered a hard stone, widely used for flooring, cladding, and decorative works. Soft stones include limestone, sandstone, and laterite—not marble. Therefore, Statement II is also false. Conclusion: Since both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect, the correct choice is Option (B). Final Answer:
27
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: “Wind speed” should be considered while designing tall buildings. Statement II: “Buildings” should be rigid in an earthquake high risk zone. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
Structural design of buildings must account for different types of loads such as wind loads and seismic loads. Each type of load requires a specific design approach to ensure safety and performance. Detailed Explanation: Statement I: Tall buildings are significantly affected by wind forces. Wind speed influences lateral loads, sway, vibration, and overall stability. Ignoring wind effects can lead to discomfort for occupants and even structural failure. Therefore, considering wind speed in the design of tall buildings is essential. Hence, Statement I is true. Statement II: In earthquake-prone (high seismic risk) zones, buildings should be ductile and flexible, not rigid. Excessive rigidity makes structures brittle, increasing the risk of sudden collapse during earthquakes. Modern seismic design promotes energy dissipation through controlled deformation. Hence, the statement that buildings should be rigid in high-risk earthquake zones is incorrect. Therefore, Statement II is false. Conclusion:
Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect. Thus, the correct option is (C). Final Answer:
28
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II and choose the correct answer.LIST-I (Building) A. Sanchi Stupa B. Circular Column C. Pyramid D. Palaces LIST-II (Shape) I. Cylinder II. Triangular Surfaces III. Dome IV. Cuboids
1
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
4
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
Buildings and architectural elements are often associated with basic geometric forms. Identifying the dominant geometric shape helps in correctly matching structures with their forms. Detailed Matching Explanation: A. Sanchi Stupa → III. Dome The Sanchi Stupa is a hemispherical structure. A hemisphere is a type of dome. B. Circular Column → I. Cylinder A circular column has a constant circular cross-section. This corresponds to the geometric shape of a cylinder. C. Pyramid → II. Triangular Surfaces A pyramid is composed of triangular faces meeting at a point. Hence, its defining surfaces are triangular. D. Palaces → IV. Cuboids Palaces generally consist of rectangular blocks and volumes. These volumes resemble cuboids in geometric form. Conclusion:
The correct matching is:
Final Answer:
29
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II and choose the correct answer.LIST-I (Temple) A. Sun Temple B. Shiva Temple C. Balaji Temple D. Brahma Temple LIST-II (Location) I. Tirupati II. Pushkar III. Modhera IV. Ujjain
1
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
3
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Concept:
Many famous temples in India are strongly associated with specific locations. Correctly matching temples with their locations requires knowledge of Indian cultural and architectural heritage. Detailed Matching Explanation: A. Sun Temple → III. Modhera The famous Sun Temple of Modhera is located in Gujarat. It is dedicated to the Sun God, Surya. B. Shiva Temple → IV. Ujjain Ujjain is home to the Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga, one of the most important Shiva temples in India. C. Balaji Temple → I. Tirupati The Balaji Temple (Lord Venkateswara) is located at Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh. It is one of the richest and most visited temples in the world. D. Brahma Temple → II. Pushkar Pushkar, Rajasthan, is famous for one of the very few temples dedicated to Lord Brahma. Conclusion:
The correct matching is:
Final Answer:
30
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II and choose the correct answer.LIST-I (Construction Equipments) A. Bulldozer B. Crane C. Concrete Mixer D. Wheel Barrow LIST-II (Functions) I. Used for transporting smaller loads over short distances at site II. Mixes cement, sand and aggregate with water to produce concrete III. Used to transport concrete to different locations at site IV. Used to level and move debris from the site
1
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
4
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Concept:
Construction activities require different equipment, each designed to perform a specific function efficiently on site. Correct identification depends on understanding the primary use of each equipment. Detailed Matching Explanation: A. Bulldozer → IV. Used to level and move debris from the site Bulldozers are heavy earth-moving machines. They are commonly used for clearing, leveling ground, and pushing debris. B. Crane → III. Used to transport concrete to different locations at site Cranes lift and move heavy materials vertically and horizontally. Buckets or containers attached to cranes are often used to carry concrete. C. Concrete Mixer → II. Mixes cement, sand and aggregate with water to produce concrete Concrete mixers ensure uniform mixing of all concrete ingredients. They are essential for producing workable concrete on site. D. Wheel Barrow → I. Used for transporting smaller loads over short distances at site Wheel barrows are manually operated tools. They are ideal for carrying small quantities of materials like sand, bricks, or concrete. Conclusion:
The correct matching is:
Final Answer:
31
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
“SDG” stands for:
1
Sustainable Development Goals
2
Strategic Design Guidelines
3
Social Development Growth
4
Systematic Development Governance
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Concept:
SDGs are a set of global goals adopted by the United Nations to address major social, economic, and environmental challenges faced by the world. Explanation: SDG stands for Sustainable Development Goals. These goals were adopted by the United Nations in 2015. There are 17 SDGs, aiming to be achieved by the year 2030. They focus on key areas such as: Poverty eradication, Quality education, Clean water and sanitation, Climate action, Sustainable cities and communities. The term emphasizes development that meets present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Thus, SDG correctly expands to Sustainable Development Goals. Final Answer:
32
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Write the full form of GRIHA:
1
Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
2
Labour Rating for Integrated Heat Assessment
3
Green Rating for Insulation Heat Assessment
4
Labour Rating for Insulation Heat Assessment
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Concept:
GRIHA is India’s national rating system for green buildings. It evaluates the environmental performance of buildings over their entire life cycle. Explanation: GRIHA stands for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. It was developed jointly by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Government of India. GRIHA promotes: Energy efficiency, Water conservation, Use of sustainable materials, Reduction of environmental impact. Options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect as they do not reflect the purpose or scope of the GRIHA rating system. Conclusion:
The correct full form of GRIHA is Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. Final Answer:
33
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
ECBC stands for:
1
Electricity Conservation Building Code
2
Electricity Consumption Building Code
3
Energy Conversion Building Code
4
Energy Conservation Building Code
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Concept:
ECBC is an important regulatory framework in India aimed at improving the energy efficiency of buildings and reducing overall energy consumption. Explanation: ECBC stands for Energy Conservation Building Code. It was developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power, Government of India. ECBC sets minimum energy performance standards for: Building envelope (walls, roofs, windows), Lighting systems, HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning), Electrical systems. The objective of ECBC is to reduce energy demand without compromising occupant comfort. The other options are incorrect because: ECBC focuses on energy conservation, not electricity consumption alone, It is not related to energy conversion. Conclusion:
Hence, ECBC correctly expands to Energy Conservation Building Code. Final Answer:
34
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
‘HRIDAY’ stands for:
1
Heritage City in Developed Association Yojana
2
High Residential in Densified Augmented Yojana
3
Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
4
Hermitage Centre of Development and Association Yojana
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:
HRIDAY is a Government of India scheme focused on the preservation, revitalization, and sustainable development of heritage cities. Explanation: HRIDAY stands for Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana. It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). The scheme aims to: Preserve cultural heritage of historic cities, Improve urban infrastructure in heritage areas, Enhance tourism potential, Promote inclusive and sustainable urban development. Option (A) is incorrect due to wrong expansion. Option (B) has no relation to heritage or urban development schemes. Option (D) is not associated with any official government program. Conclusion:
The correct full form of HRIDAY is Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana. Final Answer:
35
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
What is the architectural term for a semi-circular or polygonal recess, often found at the end of a church nave?
1
Atrium
2
Apse
3
Cloister
4
Ambulatory
Official Solution
Correct Option: (2)
Concept:
In church architecture, specific spatial terms are used to describe distinct functional and symbolic areas. These elements evolved from early Christian and Roman architectural traditions. Explanation: An apse is a semi-circular or polygonal recess located typically at the eastern end of a church. It usually houses the altar and is a focal point of liturgical importance. Atrium refers to an open courtyard, often found in Roman houses or early Christian churches. Cloister is a covered walk, usually surrounding a courtyard in monasteries. Ambulatory is a passageway that runs behind the altar and around the apse, allowing circulation. Thus, the correct architectural term for the described feature is apse. Final Answer:
36
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Which of the following city is facing a ‘water crisis’ and approaching towards ‘Zero Day’?
1
Hyderabad
2
Bengaluru
3
Indore
4
Pune
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Concept:Zero Day refers to the situation when a city runs out of usable water supply and taps run dry. It usually occurs due to prolonged drought, over-extraction of groundwater, rapid urbanization, and inadequate water management. Explanation: Hyderabad has faced severe water shortages in recent years due to: Rapid population growth and urban expansion, Declining groundwater levels, Poor rainfall and drying reservoirs. Several reports and studies have warned that Hyderabad is moving towards a Zero Day–like situation if sustainable water management practices are not adopted. While cities like Bengaluru, Pune, and Indore also face water stress, Hyderabad has been most prominently highlighted in the context of an approaching Zero Day. Conclusion:
Therefore, the city identified as facing a serious water crisis and approaching Zero Day is Hyderabad.
Final Answer:
37
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Identify the aspect that deals with the \textbf{‘Demography’ of a town.}
1
Per capita income
2
Crime rate
3
Sex ratio
4
Social security
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Concept:Demography is the statistical study of human populations. It focuses on population structure, composition, and changes over time. Explanation: Demographic characteristics typically include: Population size, Age distribution, Birth and death rates, Sex ratio. Sex ratio represents the number of females per 1000 males and is a key demographic indicator. Per capita income relates to economic conditions, not demography. Crime rate is a social indicator. Social security refers to welfare and policy measures. Conclusion:
Among the given options, sex ratio directly deals with the demography of a town. Final Answer:
38
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 has replaced:
1
Indian Eviction Act, 1870
2
Indian Education Act, 1872
3
Indian Emergency Act, 1870
4
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Concept:
India has undertaken major legal reforms to replace colonial-era laws with modern, context-appropriate legislation. One such reform relates to laws governing evidence in courts. Explanation: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was a colonial-era law governing admissibility and evaluation of evidence in courts. In 2023, it was replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. The new Act aims to: Modernize evidentiary rules, Incorporate digital and electronic evidence, Simplify legal language, Align the law with contemporary judicial needs. The other options are unrelated laws and have not been replaced by this Act. Conclusion:
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 has replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Final Answer:
39
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Urban green spaces can help to reduce air pollution and improve public health. Statement II: Urban green spaces are solely for aesthetic purposes and have no functional benefits. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Step 1: Understanding Statement I. Statement I says that urban green spaces help in reducing air pollution and improving public health. This is correct because trees and plants absorb pollutants, improve air quality, regulate temperature, and promote physical and mental well-being among urban populations.
Step 2: Understanding Statement II. Statement II claims that urban green spaces are only for aesthetic purposes and have no functional benefits. This is incorrect because urban green spaces provide multiple functional benefits such as pollution control, biodiversity conservation, climate regulation, and public health improvement.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) Incorrect, because Statement II is false. (B) Incorrect, because Statement I is true. (C) Correct, because Statement I is true and Statement II is false. (D) Incorrect, because Statement I is not false.
Step 4: Conclusion. The correct answer is (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
40
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In general, city of Delhi is considered to be planned in radial concentric design. Statement II: City of Mumbai is planned in linear design. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Step 1: Understanding Statement I. Statement I states that the city of Delhi is planned in a radial concentric design. This is correct because Delhi has developed around a central core with major roads radiating outward in different directions, especially evident in areas like Lutyens’ Delhi and the broader National Capital Region.
Step 2: Understanding Statement II. Statement II mentions that the city of Mumbai is planned in a linear design. This is also correct. Mumbai has developed in a north–south linear pattern along the western coast, constrained by the Arabian Sea on one side and limited land availability on the other.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) Correct, because both Statement I and Statement II are true. (B) Incorrect, because neither statement is false. (C) Incorrect, because Statement II is also true. (D) Incorrect, because Statement I is not false.
Step 4: Conclusion. The correct answer is (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
41
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Constitutional amendments empower village panchayat. Statement II: Village panchayats were formed under 73rd Amendment Act. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Step 1: Understanding Statement I. Statement I says that constitutional amendments empower village panchayats. This is correct because constitutional provisions provide legal status, powers, and responsibilities to Panchayati Raj Institutions, strengthening grassroots democracy.
Step 2: Understanding Statement II. Statement II states that village panchayats were formed under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. This is correct, as the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 institutionalized Panchayati Raj and established village-level panchayats across India.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) Correct, because both statements are true. (B) Incorrect, because neither statement is false. (C) Incorrect, because Statement II is also true. (D) Incorrect, because Statement I is not false.
Step 4: Conclusion. The correct answer is (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
42
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Name the person responsible for ‘White Revolution’ in India.
1
Verghese Kurien
2
Jawahar Lal Nehru
3
Indira Gandhi
4
Mother Teresa
Official Solution
Correct Option: (1)
Step 1: Understanding the White Revolution. The White Revolution refers to the rapid increase in milk production in India, which transformed the country into one of the largest producers of milk in the world. This movement is also known as \textit{Operation Flood}.
Step 2: Role of Verghese Kurien. Dr. Verghese Kurien played a crucial role in organizing dairy cooperatives, strengthening rural livelihoods, and establishing institutions like AMUL. His leadership and vision laid the foundation of India’s dairy development.
Step 3: Analyzing the options. (A) Verghese Kurien: Correct — He is known as the “Father of the White Revolution” in India. (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru: He was India’s first Prime Minister, but not directly responsible for the White Revolution. (C) Indira Gandhi: She was a former Prime Minister, but she did not lead the White Revolution. (D) Mother Teresa: She was a social reformer and humanitarian, not associated with agricultural or dairy reforms.
Step 4: Conclusion. The correct answer is (A) Verghese Kurien, who is regarded as the architect of India’s White Revolution.
43
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
What is the full form of HUDCO?
1
Housing and Urban Development Center
2
Heritage and Urban Development Corporation Limited
3
Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited
4
Health and Urban Development Center
Official Solution
Correct Option: (3)
Step 1: Understanding HUDCO. HUDCO is a public sector enterprise of the Government of India that provides finance for housing and urban infrastructure projects. It plays an important role in planned urban development and affordable housing.
Step 2: Analyzing the options. (A) Housing and Urban Development Center: Incorrect, as HUDCO is a corporation, not merely a center. (B) Heritage and Urban Development Corporation Limited: Incorrect, because HUDCO is not related to heritage development. (C) Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited: Correct — this is the official and complete expansion of HUDCO. (D) Health and Urban Development Center: Incorrect, as HUDCO is not related to health services.
Step 3: Conclusion. The correct answer is (C) Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited, which is the official full form of HUDCO.
44
PYQ 2025
medium
aptitudeID: jee-main
Select which of the followings does not represent the ‘Vedic Town Plan’.
1
Vartaka
2
Padmaka
3
Prastara
4
Dandaka
Official Solution
Correct Option: (4)
Step 1: Understanding Vedic Town Plans. Vedic town planning refers to settlement patterns described in ancient Indian texts such as the Vastu Shastra. These plans were based on geometric layouts and functional zoning for habitation, administration, and religious activities.
Step 2: Analyzing the given options. (A) Vartaka: This is a recognized type of Vedic town plan characterized by organized residential and commercial areas. (B) Padmaka: This represents a lotus-shaped town plan, commonly mentioned in ancient planning texts. (C) Prastara: This refers to a grid-based settlement pattern and is a known Vedic town layout. (D) Dandaka: This does not represent a town plan. Dandaka refers to a forest region (Dandakaranya) mentioned in ancient Indian literature, not an urban settlement pattern.
Step 3: Conclusion. The correct answer is (D) Dandaka, as it does not represent a Vedic town plan.
